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questions i combined (no otr)
Re: violence and evil
Peter said:
Incidentally, those passages in the Bible which talk
about the Hebrews wiping out entire villages
(genocide? ethnic cleansing?) also talk about the
Hebrews "devoting" the villages to God, a term that
had explicit religious significance; essentially, it
was a form of human sacrifice.
JMH****I always thought of sacrifice in the biblical
and
cultural contexts as having to do with giving up
something important to you personally. Why would
wiping out a faceless mass have anything to do with
that? I know that in other cultures (specifically the
Mejica--Aztec area), it didn't matter who's blood was
sacrificed so wars were specifically geared towards
this. But I'm not sure what to make of it.
So then Matt said:
> So, it's not that God loves violence God is a good
parent.
And then Peter said:
Ever read Philip Yancey's _Disappointment with God_? I
believe that's the book where he says that the central
thrust of the Bible -- its overarching narrative, if
you will -- is that God *learns* to be a parent.
JMH****This is an interesting take. I have a
hard time thinking of God as needing to learn
anything. What are some other things you might use to
exemplify this?
Matt said:
> Actually, I guess the resurrection is climatic if
you need it as > ultimate proof of Christ's Godhood.
And Peter replied:
Actually, no, the resurrection does *not* prove
Jesus's deity. The whole point of the resurrection is
that *all* people will be resurrected, and in this,
Jesus just happens to be the first of us. When we are
resurrected, we will finally become fully human, just
as Jesus is fully human.
JMH****Peter, you've brought this up before
in our conversations...that becoming more like Jesus
is essentially becoming more human. Discuss? I still
can't quite grab a hold of this.
Re: Inerrancy vs. Infallibility
Don said:
first of all, if you get a greek-english concordance
of the NT and an inter-linear edition and take a look
at the phrase "the word of God", I think you will
find, as I did, that the phrase is never used in the
bible to refer to the bible. Even if you set aside the
obvious fact that the bible wasn't around yet while
the books were being written, the word "graphe" (or
"scriptures/ writings") is never used in conjuction
with "the word of god". The latter phrase seems to me
to always be used in conection with either the spoken
words of Jesus, or the direct personal experience of
God. If someone who actually knows koine Greek could
correct me on that, I'd appreciate it, but that's what
I've seen in my own investigations.
JMH****how does that gell with the old testament ideas
of the word of god? anyone studied that? can you
tell what my i'll be studying after i finish my comps
in march??? :)
afternoon all!,
jm
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